this post was submitted on 29 Aug 2024
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"Too many" kinda sounds right to my ear because beans is plural, but the second logically seems right because its served by volume and is not 'countable' as ordinary (non-destroyed) beans might be.

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[–] [email protected] 32 points 3 months ago* (last edited 3 months ago) (6 children)

Since the word "beans" is plural, and countable, it's "many".

"Many" is for things that are countable, "much" is for things that aren't. e.g. Water - you'd say "too much water" but you wouldn't say "too much cups of water" but "too many cups of water".

Though "refried beans" is a thing on its own, I could go either way. Like if you were spooning beans onto my plate, I may say "too much!".

How's that for a confident, clear answer? πŸ˜†

[–] [email protected] 20 points 3 months ago (3 children)

Try to count a can of refried beans and get back to me with a result.

[–] SpaceNoodle 17 points 3 months ago

One can.

Done.

[–] [email protected] 9 points 3 months ago

The plural on the word takes precedence over the actual countability of the thing. Unless you want to start calling it a can of "refried bean"

[–] [email protected] 2 points 2 months ago

Lol, I know, right?

On my plate it's a volumetric thing, so a single unit.

But it is "beans" (plural) in a can.

[–] [email protected] 6 points 3 months ago

A technically correct alternative would be to drop that plural "s" but forego any uncountable noun that describes the form the beans take: "I had too much refried bean today."

In the wrong context it might evoke the idea of one enormous bean that the speaker was unable to finish, but like I say, technically correct.

[–] Gordon 4 points 3 months ago (1 children)

So you'd normally say "that's too much!" in which case the subject "that" is plural and countable so therefore "much" would be correct.

Otherwise you should say "you have given me too many refried beans!" since the beans are volumetric and not countable entities.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 months ago

Well clarified!

[–] [email protected] 3 points 3 months ago (1 children)

TI(R)L. Today I Re-Learned.

Thanks for this. I have basic English knowledge and this helps me

[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 months ago

Lol, I like the new acronym

[–] [email protected] 2 points 3 months ago (1 children)

I wouldn’t consider beans countable, and would put it in the same category as rice or noodles. So I’d say β€œtoo much” is the correct term.

[–] SLVRDRGN 2 points 3 months ago (1 children)

One noodle/ a bowl of noodles. Or one bean, a bowl of beans.

But you wouldn't say: one rice. You'd say one grain of rice. So it's like rice is automatically a mass of many individual bits/grains of rice. Beans are not that way, they're countable.

[–] SpaceNoodle 4 points 3 months ago

Not after they've been refried.

Consider a potato and mashed potatoes.

[–] SpaghettiYeti 1 points 3 months ago

Yes. There are countable and non-countable nouns and thems the rules.