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What's the significance of calling it "Israel-Hamas War" vs "Israel-Gaza War"? (self.asklemmy)

submitted 10 months ago by yool_ooloo to c/asklemmy

51 comments fedilink hide all child comments

I'm in the US.

I haven't discerned a pattern, by the media, in the titling of the horror currently underway.

I've seen Al Jazeera use both phrasings. I haven't determined that other media sites are hardlining their terminology either, but I notice the difference as I browse.

Maybe it doesn't mean anything, but these days people seem extra sensitive about names.

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[–] bostonbananarama 1 points 10 months ago

The general Gazan population was given weeks of advance notice and provided safe/r places to evacuate to. If 100% of the civilians had chosen to cooperate, and Hamas had not forcibly used them as human shields, then there would be no casualties.

So any country can say all civilians in an area must leave immediately. And if they don't, it's ok to indiscriminately murder civilians? Are you insane?

IDF is actually attempting to minimize casualties whenever possible.

They most certainly are not. They have bombed hospitals and refugee camps after claiming that Hamas terrorists were among them. That's a war crime.

Intent is satisfied by reckless disregard for known dangers, if you really want to go down the legal route.