If I understand you correctly, in your opinion something should be categorized as a mental disorder based on whether a behavior is potentially harmful to others?
Homosexuality, a sexual attraction that deviates from the norm - not a mental disorder because it doesn't cause harm.
Paedophilia, a sexual attraction that deviates from the norm - is a mental disorder because it potentially causes harm.
Seems a bit arbitrary to me. Maybe I'm missing something.

[–] TheYojimbo 6 points 9 months ago (1 children)

How is that arbitrary ? Harmful => disorder is not that hard to grasp imo.

Anyway I'm not the one that makes that decision :

https://www.msdmanuals.com/professional/psychiatric-disorders/paraphilias-and-paraphilic-disorders/pedophilic-disorder

[–] [email protected] 3 points 9 months ago (1 children)

I did some extra research, and yeah, turns out something being a mental disorder does not depend on whether it involves atypical behaviors or preferences, it depends on whether it causes distress or impairment, or is harmful to the individual or others. Furthermore, the context, intensity, and impact of the behavior is also a deciding factor.
Basically, it's subjective. It's a disorder if we decide it's a disorder.

[–] TheYojimbo 5 points 9 months ago

I would not go as far as saying it's subjective, there are official definitions like the who's :

https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/mental-disorders

But yes it depends on the context and the period so it's not entirely objective either.