Ask Lemmy
A Fediverse community for open-ended, thought provoking questions
Please don't post about US Politics.
Rules: (interactive)
1) Be nice and; have fun
Doxxing, trolling, sealioning, racism, and toxicity are not welcomed in AskLemmy. Remember what your mother said: if you can't say something nice, don't say anything at all. In addition, the site-wide Lemmy.world terms of service also apply here. Please familiarize yourself with them
2) All posts must end with a '?'
This is sort of like Jeopardy. Please phrase all post titles in the form of a proper question ending with ?
3) No spam
Please do not flood the community with nonsense. Actual suspected spammers will be banned on site. No astroturfing.
4) NSFW is okay, within reason
Just remember to tag posts with either a content warning or a [NSFW] tag. Overtly sexual posts are not allowed, please direct them to either [email protected] or [email protected].
NSFW comments should be restricted to posts tagged [NSFW].
5) This is not a support community.
It is not a place for 'how do I?', type questions.
If you have any questions regarding the site itself or would like to report a community, please direct them to Lemmy.world Support or email [email protected]. For other questions check our partnered communities list, or use the search function.
Reminder: The terms of service apply here too.
Partnered Communities:
Logo design credit goes to: tubbadu
view the rest of the comments
Here's one I can weigh in on. I realise they have different meanings now, but they didn't always. As language evolves, often words that used to be synonyms are differentiated so that their meanings, while still similar, have a different nuance. An example off the top of my head: sin and crime. Sin was the Old English word for crime, before the Romance word 'crime' entered English, presumably after William the Conqueror invaded and French became the language of court. 'Sin' didn't disappear, it just became a more specialised form of the now general word 'crime' - meaning a crime against God, used to describe moral failings rather than acts hurting others like theft or murder. We still have both words today, and both are useful, even though they originally meant the same. Since the distinction between 'envy' and 'jealousy' is arguably pretty nuanced, I suspect the same thing happened here - both were comparative and related to the difference between what you have and what your neighbour has, I think the differentiation is relatively recent. I'm not sure if this explanation helps you resolve this hill to die on, please let me know if I can elaborate further.