this post was submitted on 23 Aug 2023
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No Stupid Questions

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This relates to the BBC article [https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-politics-66596790] which states "the UK should pay $24tn (£18.8tn) for its slavery involvement in 14 countries".

The UK abolished slavery in 1833. That's 190 years ago. So nobody alive today has a slave, and nobody alive today was a slave.

Dividing £18tn by the number of UK taxpayers (31.6m) gives £569 each. Why do I, who have never owned a slave, have to give £569 to someone who similarly is not a slave?

When I've paid my £569 is that the end of the matter forever or will it just open the floodgates of other similar claims?

Isn't this just a country that isn't doing too well, looking at the UK doing reasonably well (cost of living crisis excluded of course), and saying "oh there's this historical thing that affects nobody alive today but you still have to give us trillions of Sterling"?

Shouldn't payment of reparations be limited to those who still benefit from the slave trade today, and paid to those who still suffer from it?

(Please don't flame me. This is NSQ. I genuinely don't know why this is something I should have to pay. I agree slavery is terrible and condemn it in all its forms, and we were right to abolish it.)

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[–] [email protected] 174 points 10 months ago (44 children)

Nations that were the source of slaves remain on the whole impoverished and underdeveloped.

Nations that were slavers still remain on the whole wealthy and highly developed.

This is not a coincidence, and there is a reasonable case to be made for reparations on these grounds.

[–] [email protected] 28 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (1 children)

The UKs position today is arguably due more to leading the Industrial Revolution and that was the main factor in the decay of slavery, so you need to balance historic grievances with development i.e. "what have the Romans ever done for us?"

[–] [email protected] 11 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (20 children)

Is it possible that other factors led to the countries being wealthy or impoverished, and this allowed the wealthy to colonise or take the impoverished as slaves?

[–] [email protected] 12 points 10 months ago (6 children)
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[–] [email protected] 11 points 10 months ago

Exactly. If anything, this amount of money is way too small.

Occasionally we read a news story about someone who escaped a maniac that kept them locked up for years, forcing them to work and do depraved things for little or no pay. We rightfully think this is terrible and the criminal is inhuman.

Slavery was millions of people in that situation for their entire lives. Whole economies were based on this genocide. We put Nazis to death for genocide. We put other leader on trial for similar crimes. Paying this tiny fine is the least the British (and other European governments) can do. The amount they really owe would bankrupt them.

What amount of money would you exchange for measurably worse lives (education, health, jobs) for you, your family, and everyone who looks like you for generations?

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[–] [email protected] 95 points 10 months ago (11 children)

Here's a way to think of it:

If I steal all of your money and invest it to grow over time then I'll end up with even more money while you don't benefit from the growth that should have been yours. Now we have children and pass on our wealth. You pass on less because it was stolen, and I pass on more because of what I stole. This multiplies over the generations and a disparity is maintained. My offspring will have better educations and better opportunities because of the wealth they had access to, and yours will have fewer opportunities because you don't have the money to spend on them.

The goal of reparations is to attempt to correct some of this disparity. It tries to provide opportunities for people who don't have it but would have if something in the past weren't stolen.

For an example that's easy to see: In the US, black people are less likely to know how to swim. This has nothing to do with them being black, but what opportunities they had access to. This is for many reasons. One part of it is that most places had community pools, but they had restrictions for people of color. When this was outlawed, they instead just closed the pools or added memberships that required payment.

People also built up wealth over time through property, but black people were prevented from getting loans to buy property except in redlined places. This prevented them from building up generational wealth like white people were allowed to do. (This is ignoring the whole slavery thing...) It causes ripples through time where their children have less opportunities, which then causes their children to have fewer, and so on.

[–] Kaleunt17 20 points 10 months ago (7 children)

The problem I have with this viewpoint is this.

Where does it start and where does it end?

World history is full of atrocities, crimes, war etc.

Additionally, many of the things which we now consider atrocity or crime might not even have been one in the past.

Fabricating such artificial claims is the same as Putin is doing by using the history book for creating claims on Ucraine.

[–] [email protected] 24 points 10 months ago (6 children)

This has always been an issue I get stuck on. If we hold current people liable for the crimes of their ancestors, how far back do we go?

The trans-atlantic slave trade was abhorrent, but slavery didn't begin or end with it.

Do Egyptians owe Jews reperations due to how they were treated? Should the Italians compensate half of Europe and North Africa for what the Romans did? Should Arab nations pay the UK and Ireland for the people kidnapped by the Barbary Pirates?

The Ottomans were still keeping slaves until the early 1900s, long after the western European powers had ended the practice, why aren't we seeing calls for reperations from Turkey to Slavic nations?

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[–] [email protected] 17 points 10 months ago (1 children)

this is why the slippery slope fallacy is a fallacy

"if we punish people for murder, what about self defense?"

or

"if we arrest people for selling meth, it'll end up making the state arrest people who drink coffee"

you can legislate for a specific instance and not have it spiral out of control into insanity.

Maybe some people would try to seek reparations for ridiculous stuff. It's exactly the purview of the law, politics and diplomacy to navigate that.

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[–] NotSoCoolWhip 14 points 10 months ago

Well considering the last slave (coerced labor) was freed in the 1940s, it's still extremely recent. These are people's grandparents and great-grandparents. The velocity of money is very real.

https://youtu.be/j4kI2h3iotA?si=3h8t3bfODPKhULp1

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[–] [email protected] 18 points 10 months ago (7 children)

This is hard for me to commit to an opinion on. I totally understand the argument that systemic injustices of the past have impacts today on the opportunities presented to descendants of affected individuals, therefore proactive steps are required to achieve equity. But solutions like requiring blanket reparations from one race to another seem to take for granted that everyone of the first race has been equally privileged by historical injustices, while everyone of the second race has been equally disadvantaged.

This obviously isn’t true. People of color are disproportionately likely to be disadvantaged, but there are people of color who lead highly privileged lives, and there are white people who are highly disadvantaged due to coming from low socioeconomic class, poor health, lack of access to education, etc.

The concept of reparations being paid on a basis of race necessarily involves the government forcing disadvantaged white, Asian, Latino, and other non-black people to become more institutionally disadvantaged, so that a group that contains highly privileged people of color can become more economically advantaged.

Something absolutely needs to be done, we need to be actively fighting for equity, but it’s hard for me to accept an argument that that should be done on the basis of race instead of addressing the causes of class-based inequality that will benefit disadvantaged black people along with disadvantaged people of other races.

For example, instead of seeking to improve the intergenerational income mobility of POCs in a system that restricts the income mobility of those without wealthy parents, we should fix the system and ensure a level playing field between someone who is born to high-school drop outs, and someone who was born to Ivy League graduates.

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[–] Baahb 75 points 10 months ago (4 children)

The argument goes, as a British citizen, you have and continue to benefit from policies that your government made a long time ago. Reparations are not a tax on you, but an expense the government should have paid at the time of the work, but instead it did things like kidnap people from their homes, transport them to where labor was necessary, and force them into work. Now, the people who are the descendents of the kidnapped folks are requesting that the bills their great great grandparents were never paid. To extend that, after slavery ended, many of those who had been enslaved were left disenfranchised, and impoverished to the point that there is almost no possibility of building generational wealth.

As for if this will open the floodgates or not, who knows. An argument could be made in both directions, it's not as though governments paying one time sums to places is rare, and reparations for wars used to be pretty run of the mill.

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[–] silentdon 59 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (6 children)

Imagine you're running a very long relay race. Just after the race starts, members of the other team jump out of the bushes, beat up your runner and tie them up. This happens for several laps until someone decides that this is probably bad so they stop beating and restraining you. But the race doesn't stop and the positions aren't reset, but the other team is like 20 laps ahead and allowed to finish. Is that fair?

Reparations would theoretically allow your team to catch up but former slaves and their descendants have never been allowed that. What's more, in the UK, former slave owners were paid for the inconvenience of no longer owning slaves (edit: up until 2015!!!) while the former slaves got to continue living as second-class citizens for a while.

Also, saying slavery ended hundreds of years ago and no one benefits from it today doesn't work because all slave-owner countries still benefit from slave labour in the form of generational wealth, advanced infrastructure and old laws that specifically aim to disadvantage black people (whether they were abolished or still on the books the effects are still felt). Imagine your great-granddad was able to build up a fortune, how likely would it be that your family would still be rich? Imagine your great-granddad lost every cent, how likely would it be that your family would be still poor? Sure, it's possible that situations drastically over time but that's the exception and not the rule. There are reasons why things are the way they are.

I believe that reparations should not be any lump sum of money but in the form of education, investment opportunities, resources and infrastructure. That way all persons living in former slave countries can benefit and pass those benefits down to their descendants.

Edit: I believe that up to last year Barbados went after Richard Drax for reparations due to his family's direct involvement in slavery in that country. I don't know how successful that was, but I support it.

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[–] SwedishFool 49 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (3 children)

So, can the Slavic countries claim payments of reparations from the formerly known ottoman empire? Perhaps Jewish people from Asia? Surely the Christians from the Arabs, and the Arabs from the Christians? Not to mention Vietnam from China, or entire Europe from the decendants of the Roman empire.

Or are all of those instances somehow different?

History is full of misery and trying to pay to make amends for somebody else's actions, today, feels ridiculous. Just as OP, I don't get it.

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[–] [email protected] 39 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (5 children)

Slaveholders got to build wealth off the free labor of slaves. When they died, that wealth didn't disappear. It was passed down to the next generation. The descendants of slave holders are better off financially than the descendants of slaves because of that accumulated wealth. The descendants of slave holders should pay back the wealth they now own to the people it was stolen from.

EDIT: I knew this would trigger white people.

[–] [email protected] 39 points 10 months ago (2 children)

But tax-based reparations will mostly be paid out from normal proletariat with little to no capital ownership.

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[–] mvirts 13 points 10 months ago

Aka tax the rich, were all slaves on a spectrum

[–] FluorideMind 11 points 10 months ago

Lmao as if I am seeing any of that wealth.

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[–] WorldWideLem 30 points 10 months ago (16 children)

Group A was wronged by entity B. Group A goes to court to seek restitution from entity B. Courts rule that entity B did in fact cause damages to group A and must be held liable.

That's all reparations are. Entity B is your government. It's the same legal entity as it was 190 years ago, regardless of the composition of the population it represents. If a group was wronged by their government, this is their only means to legal restitution. Unfortunately since the primary form of income for some governments is taxation, it means people complain about paying for things when that's not exactly what's happening.

The alternative is to say that if a government "runs out the clock" and is able to avoid responsibility until the population turns over, then they can no longer be held liable for anything they did prior to that point. That's not a very good position, in my opinion.

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[–] fubo 26 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (2 children)

Some countries ended slavery by buying off the slave-owners — paying them for the property that they were being deprived of.

It's kinda weird that they didn't pay the enslaved people, who had been deprived of their own work and work-product and life and freedom.

As an American whose ancestors came from Europe around the same time that slavery was abolished here, I can be sure that none of my ancestors benefited directly from slavery; but also that they joined a society that had profited immensely from slavery. The whole reparations concept is complicated.

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[–] Thatsalotofpotatoes 26 points 10 months ago (6 children)

It's not intended to be punitive. The idea is that slavery generated a massive amount of wealth for slave owning economies that left us richer and the descendants of slaves poorer. Think of it as being the child of a crime boss. You haven't committed any crimes but the hosue you live in and the school that gave you the education to get ahead were paid for with dirty money. The idea is fair, but just not likely to ever happen. I think the point is more so to make people recognize the problem so that more is done to catch up the people on the wrong end of the generational wealth spectrum

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[–] Apepollo11 22 points 10 months ago (3 children)

There's a couple of things to consider when thinking about this.

Firstly, dividing the total by the number of tax payers and concluding that everyone should pay £569 is misleading. Wealthy people pay far more tax than most people (still not enough IMHO!) and as such the per-person cost is wildly different for everyone too.

Secondly, consider your position - your chances of success, and the possible range of success, depends hugely on your parents' circumstances and those of other close people in your life.

So we have this clear chain of success breeding success - wealthy people can afford to give their children the kind of start in life that us poor spuds can only dream of.

A huge number of wealthy families used slavery to amass and increase their wealth massively. These families are still wealthy, still benefitting from the leg-up they were given on the backs of slaves.

These families are the ones who, ultimately through tax, would end up contributing the most. Us plebs would be paying relatively little.

Even if your family didn't own slaves, or exploit them directly, they'll almost certainly have benefited from their existence. I live in a mill town north of Manchester - the very reason for this town's existence is cotton, ultimately picked by slaves abroad. The money came from businesses and trade that relied on slavery.

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[–] [email protected] 20 points 10 months ago (19 children)

Let's say that 5 generations ago, your great-great-great grandfather had a farm. It was highly productive and had a great location.

Let's say that my great-great-great grandfather went to the local government and paid bribes and maybe did some light killing and stole that farm. No matter who your g-g-g grandfather talked to, they all pointed to the new deed and told him to suck eggs. Your g-g-g grandfather fell into despair and poverty. His children grew up poor but also worked hard and climbed up the wealth ladder a little. So too did their children, and so on, until your generation. Let's say you're lower middle class or so. No generational wealth to speak of but not in poverty.

Meanwhile my family has developed that farmland, partitioned it and sold or leased pieces of it for business and industry. We have phenomenal generational wealth all built on that initial theft of land.

But hey, you never had land stolen directly from you, and I never directly stole the land. Everyone in the area knows exactly what happened. Everyone in the area knows that my generational wealth is built on theft. Nowadays everyone talks openly about it, including me.

Now, from the outside looking in, I say that the absolutely morally right thing to do is restore the ownership of the land to the descendants of the person who owned it. But from the inside, the living descendants of the thief say hey, WE didn't steal the land. We just benefit every day from the original theft. Why should we do anything to make amends for that theft, which we don't dispute but don't want to be accountable for either.

[–] [email protected] 14 points 10 months ago (4 children)

Okay, and how about the millions of other people whose ancestors never did or had any of that? Of the families that benefitted, some of them are still rich and powerful, those are the ones that should be looked at, not some Joe Blow whose lineage has always been lower/middle-class, working for a living like everyone else.

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[–] alvvayson 19 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago)

If people flame you, it's not because it's a SQ, but because the people typically framing the issue like you are framing it are racist right wingers.

Nobody is going to take £569,000 out of the white man's pocket tomorrow and give it to a black person because of slavery.

If you actually take some time to read up on what is actually being discussed, the state of the debate is more like

  1. The fair market value of what was stolen from slaves is £18T. We are mostly discussing what the most accurate figure is at this stage in history.

  2. The slaves were never compensated in their life and that money ultimately benefited Western societies.

  3. Justice has never been served, so we need to figure out how to make things right.

Absolutely no one has ever transferred a single cent as compensation to slaves or their descendants and it's not going to happen today or tomorrow either. But it is totally right that we are discussing the issue to see how we can make it right.

A more likely outcome would be to give a small token payment to descendants of slaves for the next 200 years and to provide the poor descendants of slaves with educational opportunities and perhaps help to finance things like a small business or home. Those richer descendents could also choose to donate their cash payment into the find for the poorer descendants.

[–] Lord_Logjam 19 points 10 months ago

18,000,000,000,000/31,600,000 = 569,620

Don't want to be that guy, but it definitely changes the picture somewhat.

[–] habitualTartare 19 points 10 months ago (5 children)

If you are genuinely curious, theres a collection of articles published by the Atlantic. It deals with the US but seems relevant to your question.

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[–] [email protected] 19 points 10 months ago (1 children)

Britain paid reparations to the slaveowners and their descendants. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slave_Compensation_Act_1837
The last check went out in 2015. So yes, people alive today benefited from this. directly.
If they want to make it fair, they should pay reparations to the descendants of enslaved people and/or take back the money they gave to slaveowners.

[–] [email protected] 13 points 10 months ago (1 children)

Wait, Britain was compensating the descents of slave owners for the loss of their slaves less than ten years ago? Wtf?

[–] [email protected] 19 points 10 months ago

Yup. From the article:

Payments of the bonds to the descendants of creditors was only finalised in 2015 when the British Government decided to modernise the gilt portfolio by redeeming all remaining undated gilts.

Since 2018, numerous Freedom of Information Act requests have been sent to the British government and Bank of England for the names of those who were paid with the bonds, of which all were denied.

[–] [email protected] 16 points 10 months ago

We (the UK) have to be honest about how it is we come to be a member of a G7 country. It didn't come about in the last 20 years, it came about because we were the leading world power between the Napoleonic Wars and the start of the 2nd world war. During that time slavery was legal, then made illegal but at the same time we colonised other countries, keeping their populations in conditions not much better than slavery.

When you include the Industrial Revolution and what some people say was our own 'internal' psuedo-slavery of the working classes, the UK became massively wealthy and it's a foundation and status that we still have today.

This wealth via exploitation and slavery had the effect of not only making us a rich nation but the countries we raided and colonised, very very poor. That's a foundation and status they still have today.

I don't know what the answer is, but we can't pretend it's a simple as 'this happened a long time ago and therefore doesn't count'.

[–] [email protected] 15 points 10 months ago (3 children)

Slavery ended a while ago, but in the US there is still people alive today who suffered through the Jim Crow laws, and there is still a lot of systematic racism. So, racism didnt end with slavery.

For what I understand about reparations, it is for compensating the black communities, because rich white people has many generations of wealth, meanwhile black people only until a few decades ago were legality unable to make it bigger, being confined to poor communities, and being discriminated agaisnt in every aspect of a white dominated society.

Basically black people had so many obstacules for progress until kinda recently, and reparation are a way to level the ground. Reparations would allow more black people to go to college, feed their families, and get out of extreme poverty.

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[–] mvirts 13 points 10 months ago (1 children)

Reparation payments sound nice sometimes, but I truly think it's just a distraction designed to promote infighting among the economically enslaved. Tax the rich, provide for all in need, and we will have made more of a repair than payment ever could.

[–] WaxedWookie 14 points 10 months ago (1 children)

You get a reparations payout,

You spend the reparations payout , The money flows straight out of the community into the pockets of the likes of the Waltons.

Or

You tax the likes of the Waltons,

You invest in infrastructure and social programs

The money stays in the community and provides long-term benefit, and greater social mobility to lift people out of the after-effects of slavery.

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[–] JdW 13 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (1 children)

They are definately not fair. But fair is not an economic or political quantifyable term. Slavery wasn't fair either.

What is just or not changes with times and societies. If there is political capital to be made by making reparations then they make sense. If the public disagrees they can and will vote out those responsible. For better or for worse that's our system.

But I personally do not feel there's such a thing as Sins of the Fathers. I have nothing to do with the slavers of 300 years ago, the whole concept of owning a human being is repugnant to me. And I genuinly feel that should be enough.

[–] [email protected] 15 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago)

I tend to agree about the Sins of the Fathers, but at the same time, if you don't inherit their sins why do you inherit their stolen boons?

But, ultimately, the time to address these evils was a century ago.

Hell, at this point it's impossible to separate "sinner" and victim in many cases. What do you do for the descendants of both slave and slave owner?

Instead, in the now, as a society we should indeed strive to lift up the impoverished. All of the impoverished.

[–] [email protected] 12 points 10 months ago

I wouldn't worry.

We won't even give back the stuff in the British Museum, and we've still got that, unlike some fantasy amount of money made up by an attention seeking judge.

[–] NewNewAccount 12 points 10 months ago

I genuinely don’t know why this is something I should have to pay.

Weird way to view the situation. Then again, I bet a lot of slaves genuinely thought they shouldn’t have to be slaves.

[–] [email protected] 12 points 10 months ago (4 children)

Your number is a bit off. It's more around 569000 per person.

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