this post was submitted on 04 Oct 2024
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Lemmy Shitpost

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Welcome to Lemmy Shitpost. Here you can shitpost to your hearts content.

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[–] Wilzax 74 points 2 months ago (14 children)
[–] samus12345 14 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (13 children)

Hmm, does it count if the animal (human, in this case) could be omnivorous, but chooses not to be for whatever reason?

[–] Resonosity 2 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago)

I like to think of the distinction in a de jure vs de facto way.

If all the evidence we have of a species is them consuming autotrophs, then we do mental gymnastics and induce that they are 100% herbivores.

Of course this also leaves room for an herbivore's potential to consume heterotrophs, in which case our knowledge would have to update and reflect reality. Maybe 99% herbivore, 1% carnivore.

And at that point, we may still do mental gymnastics and call species herbivores because that is their normal behavior, where their abnormal behavior is shown due to abiotic or biotic factors, perhaps from loss of habitat or removal/introduction of species in the food web, etc.

Edit: for humans, I'd say we can classify different humans differently because of the times we live in (it's so easy to be a vegan nowadays) and our natural, higher moral concepts and empathy.

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