this post was submitted on 01 May 2024
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[–] TheGrandNagus 8 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (2 children)

The NFL doesn't allow competition from teams from plenty of countries. Should those countries be able to sue the NFL on that basis, saying it's anti-competitive?

If your opinion on the above is "no", could you then explain what merits this double standard?

There seems to be an element of US exceptionalism here. The US does not get to impose management terms on foreign sporting organisations, except for the events that take place within their borders.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 6 months ago (1 children)

The NFL, MLB, and whatever US based sports leagues actually have exceptions to the Sherman antitrust act. F1 does not have this, but are owned by a US based, publicly traded company, and are this is subject to US law, including the Sherman antitrust act.

[–] TheGrandNagus 1 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

They have those clauses in the US, not the UK. So based on your logic the UK should be able to tell the NFL what they can/can't do regardless of US law.

You're arguing both ways. That the UK can't impose terms on the NFL because it's under US law, but that the US can impose terms on FOM despite being under UK law.

Incorrect. FOM is a UK company based in the UK. They are under UK jurisdiction, not US jurisdiction.

Think of it this way, McDonalds is an American company, but their UK subsidiary has to follow UK law, not American law. Does that make sense to you? The UK business follows UK advertising law, food safety law, employee protection law, environmental law, etc. Not US law.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

If they operate in the US, like they are at this very moment in Miami, they are supposed to follow US law. They don't get some weird ass exception just cause the governing body is located elsewhere. Just like countries are free to ban cigarette advertising, the US does have the ability to say "you want to race here, follow our rules."

Think of it this way, McDonalds is an American company, but their UK subsidiary has to follow UK law, not American law. But if that UK franchisee wants to open a store in the US, they still have to follow US law. Does that make sense to you? The business that is operating in the US follows US advertising law, food safety law, employee protection law, environmental law, etc. Not JUST UK law.

[–] TheGrandNagus -1 points 6 months ago

Yes, they can revoke their Miami race. Good, we're getting somewhere. I'm glad you've come around and changed your stance.

They have jurisdiction of what happens in the US, but not elsewhere. I.e. they can blackmail FOM by saying if you don't allow (another) American team into F1 then you can't race in the US...

But they cannot apply US laws to FOM or enforce that they must allow more entrants.

Not JUST UK law.

Yes just UK law. A McDonald's in the UK only has to follow UK law. If you think otherwise, you are wrong.

[–] Rapidcreek -2 points 6 months ago (1 children)

There's usually a reason. What is the reason? It is the answer to the letters question.

[–] TheGrandNagus 3 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (2 children)

I don't know what you're saying, can you speak plainly? This reads like a chatGPT response or a bad attempt at a riddle.

Should countries be able to compel the NFL to allow entry to teams they like, on the basis that not allowing them in is anti-competitive?

If no, then what's with the double standard? Is it American exceptionalism? Something else?

[–] Rapidcreek 4 points 6 months ago (1 children)

If the NFL received a request to franchise a foreign team and rejected it, they would state why, per their own rules, they rejected it. That is what the letter demands.

Understand?

So, to go back in time...

The FIA spent months of due diligence on the Andretti Global business plan and resources. They pronounced them good to go.

The teams and Liberty made Andretti jump through hoops, and rejected them giving no good reason.

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

There's already an explanation: because they wanted to and aren't obliged to let anybody into their club that wants to join.

And nah, the NFL doing that wouldn't matter. Not letting them in would still be anti-competitive and not following UK law.

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

So, that proves they are anti competitive and they'll be referred to the the DOJ just like FIFA. Congrats

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

It proves nothing other than it's their sporting organisation where they call the shots, and they called a shot.

Is it anti-competitive for a private sporting organisation to not allow people to enter whenever they want? I don't think so.

Again, since you keep dodging it, should the UK or elsewhere be able to force the NFL to grant entry to UK teams on the grounds of it being anti-competitive as it stands?

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

It's a business listed on the NYSE. As such, it must follow the laws of the US.

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

No. You are misunderstanding how this works.

If Andretti wants to take FOM to court to join F1 then the Concorde Agreement comes into it, which is set out in English law. FOM is headquartered in the UK, and Formula 1 disputes are governed by agreements that designate English courts as the venue (although some that impact the FIA side of things are in French law). Since Formula 1's operations are rooted in UK law, any legal challenge by Andretti against FOM would have to follow the rules set out in these agreements, which require legal proceedings to happen in the UK. No ifs, no buts.

Even though FOM is owned by an American company, the legal framework around Formula 1means that any disputes have to be dealt with in UK courts.

Think of it this way. If Cadburys refused to grant a license to a company in Australia to sell their chocolate there, they'd go to court in the UK, because Cadburys is a UK company, despite being owned by a US firm. They'd be taking Cadburys to court, not Mondelez. Just as Andretti would take FOM to court, not Liberty.

I don't have any problem with Andretti taking them to court....they just need to do it in the right place where they can actually do something, all the US can do is review it, say they agree but cant enforce a thing as FOM is not a US company.

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

You need to read the article. Congress is asking if FOM is being anticompetitive by not allowing GM to compete. It has very little to do with Andretti.

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

I've read the article. It's a few congress people sabre-rattling about a matter they don't understand.

Andretti lobbied a few congress people, it's semantics. It doesn't change anything about my comment or the situation. FOM is not under US jurisdiction and the US can't tell them what to do or find them guilty of anything.

This can only be challenged in UK courts.

Do you think that the NFL can be challenged in UK courts for not allowing British teams in the league? Could you explain your reasoning behind that logic?

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Again.

The lead congressman is from Michigan, home of GM.

FOM is a US company and very much under US law. Even if it wasn't it could still be charged with US antitrust laws.

The same thing happened to FIFA

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

No. FOM is a British company and is under British law. The Concorde Agreement is under British law. You are wrong. Please do your research.

Stop dodging the damn question. How many times do you need to be asked? Answer it.

[–] Rapidcreek 0 points 6 months ago (1 children)

No, FWONK is a US company, but nevermind the facts. The Concord Agreement is a registered corporate document of a US company that used to be known as Liberty Media, and is now Formula One. As such, it is under the purview of of the SEC, DOJ among others. This is not a contract dispute. It is a potential antitrust suit.

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

No. FOM is a British company, based in the UK, bound by UK law. It is headquartered in London. The Concorde Agreement is also under the purview of British law. You keep repeating that 2+2=5, but that does not make it so.

Stop ignoring my question. Answer it.

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

I really don't know what your problem is. I've already told you that you're wrong, but it doesn't matter. FiFA is a Swiss company, and they have been successfully sued by the US government on antitrust. Also, the Concord Agreement contract doesn't matter except to the point of F1 minding their own rules. Antitrust is not a contract dispute, as I said

I've been patient. Be glad to answer your question if you state it plainly.

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago (1 children)

I've told you that you're wrong. FOM is under UK jurisdiction, it's a UK company. And the Concorde Agreement is answerable to UK law, not US law.

If Andretti wants in, they'll have to challenge it in UK courts, not American ones.

I don't think I can dumb this down any more for you, I'm sorry.

And no, since you've been dodging the question, clearly you aren't. Answer it. Do you think the UK has the right to tell the NFL that they must accept British teams? Yes or no.

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

This is the last time I'll say this.

  1. Liberty is a US company, and owns F1. It doesn't matter what law their contracts construction contain because this is not a contract issue.

  2. This is not about Andretti, it's about GM.

  3. That question is in reality useless, since the NFL would love to have a British team. If they did have a team complying with their rules, and the NFL was found to be breaking British antitrust laws; I've got no problem with them being sued.

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

Liberty is a US company, and owns F1.

That's not how this works. McDonald's owns McDonald's UK, but that doesn't mean that McDonald's UK follows US laws. It follows UK laws. The same applies to FOM, which is a British business, based in the UK, and complies with UK law. US laws don't apply to them, nor is there any mechanisms to apply them.

How is that hard to understand? How many more times do I need to explain it to you? If you set up a lemonade stand in the US then another in Spain, they'll follow the laws of where they're based respectively. They wouldn't bother be under the guise of US law.

this is not a contract issue.

Yes it is.

This is not about Andretti

Yes it is.

That question is in reality useless, since the NFL would love to have a British team.

Stop dodging the question.

and the NFL was found to be breaking British antitrust laws; I've got no problem with them being sued.

Interesting... So you think any country should be able to sue any company or sporting organisation for their business elsewhere. Cool. I'll be awaiting, say, Germany suing USPS and you cheering for it.

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

There are US laws for business. Most countries have them. Antitrust laws are not contingent on internal contracts. It's a law not a contract dispute. If you can acknowledge that it might be worthwhile to go further.

[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago (1 children)

US laws don't apply outside of the US.

I get that you're really into your nationalism and American exceptionalism over there, but surely you understand that.

US law is as relevant here as Japanese law.

[–] Rapidcreek 0 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Sigh.

US laws apply to anybody or anything on US Ground. That includes people, business, and things like money and banking.

If you want to practice monopolistic business practices in other parts of the world and exclude the US and U.S.-Mexico-Canada Agreement countries, that is up to you and the antitrust laws of the EU and Britain.

If this is your way of saying you understand this is not a contract matter, say so.

[–] TheGrandNagus 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Exactly, and FOM isn't in the US, it's in the UK. I can show you a map if you like.

This really isn't complicated.

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Exactly

So, it's not a contract issue

You are dead wrong about F1 being a foreign entity but suppose it is. Suppose it is incorporated in Britain instead of Delaware. Then it still can be indicted as was FIFA, a Swiss company, as this article explains.

https://www.cnbc.com/2015/05/27/why-fifa-is-being-prosecuted-in-the-us.html#:~:text=FIFA%20may%20be%20based%20in,some%20of%20its%20top%20officials.

BTW, the Feds won this case.

[–] TheGrandNagus 1 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago) (1 children)

It is a foreign entity, are you stupid? The UK is not in the US. I can show you a map if you like. How could you possibly argue that a business based in the UK isn't a foreign entity to the US.

Currie explained that CONCACAF’s headquarters has been in the United Statesβ€”in New York and then Floridaβ€”for the entire time period included in the indictment.

Doesn't apply to FOM.

Also, this covers financial crimes in which American financial companies and a headquarters based in the US was involved.

Very different to FOM, a British company, the FIA, a French company, and teams (various countries) setting standards on who can join their private club.

Should the NFL be under the jurisdiction of the UK?

[–] Rapidcreek 1 points 6 months ago

OK, we'll end this right here. You obviously are on the edge. I'll block you for good measure.

[–] mhague 0 points 6 months ago (1 children)
[–] TheGrandNagus 0 points 6 months ago