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Same difference
How so?
“I can please none of the people all of the time,” equates to, “I can always please no one,” or.. “I can never please anyone.”
This is not the same as, “I can please all of the people none of the time,” which is, “I can never please everyone.”
literacy is hard mkay
This seems very important to argue with a stranger about
It’s the principal of the matter. (See subject headline)
I'm genuinely proud of you for this joke. Bravo! No notes.
"I can please none of the people all of the time," reads to me as there is no one you can please every time; i.e. you will disappoint everyone at some point. Which I feel is as true as not being able to please everyone.
I hear you. Look into the difference between contraposistive and converse.
"all of the people none of the time" means you will never please 100% of everyone. As in, maybe some people, but not everyone.
"none of the people all of the time" means you will always please 0% of people.
They're very different statements.