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I'm saying that when your country is invaded, worrying about respecting the people who's culture is the same as the invader's is a great way to get a bunch of fifth columnists. And I'm not sure why you're not aware of that. Similarly, despite the many British people of German heritage, in 1939, their "unique British-German culture" was not relevant and was not respected and should not have been.
That's literally calling for genocide? You're telling a peoples (who are the victims of an invasion) that they cannot have their own culture because it's similar to an invaders?
No. It literally is not calling for genocide any more than it would be calling for genocide to say that the French should stop teaching kids German in school in Alasace-Lorraine before the Nazis invaded.
Yes, without a doubt denying children their cultural language and customs is a form of ethnocide/genocide.
Not teaching it in school isn't the same as denying it. No country teaches every language spoken at home in schools.
I suppose if the U.S. invaded Mexico and Mexico banned the U.S. cultural enclaves that had arisen there from celebrating July 4th, that would also be genocide?
Seems like genocide is not all that horrific in your view.
Article II of the genocide convention has 5 definitions, any one of the five is enough for it to be called a genocide:
https://iccforum.com/genocide-convention
(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
(d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
Attempting to eliminate a culture by restricting it's beliefs, teachings, or language would fall under (c). This is precisely what was done in the US and Canada with "Indian Schools" for example, and partially is what is being done to the Uyghurs in China, although they are also being subjected to (a), (b), (d) and (e) as well.
Indian Schools were boarding schools that forced kids to use English. That is not the same.
I gave two scenarios here: Public schools not teaching Russian in Ukraine and a hypothetical scenario where the very real American enclaves in Mexico were prevented from celebrating U.S. independence day if Mexico were invaded and asked if those were genocide. Neither of them fit that list and yet I have been told the former is genocide and, despite three responses, the latter has yet to be even responded to.
So I will ask both again, rephrasing one of them:
There are lots of Chinese-Americans in the U.S. If no U.S. public school taught Mandarin, would that be genocide?
There are American cultural enclaves in Mexico. If the U.S. invaded Mexico and Mexico told those cultural enclaves they couldn't celebrate the 4th of July, would that be genocide?
I would really appreciate an answer. Because if the answer to both questions, especially the first one, is 'yes,' the genocide is, as I said, not all that horrific.
No, because in that scenario there's a choice. Chinese Americans have the choice of attending schools where their language and culture is taught.
Absolutely. Because it's attempting to stamp out a language and culture with no alternative.
Isn't that similar to celebrating Russian Independence Day on June 12th in Ukraine? Or celebrating Hitler's Birthday in Britain after they joined the war? I just don't see how that's genocidal. It's not allowing people to celebrate the enemy.
"Enemy" is a relative term. Imprisoning the Japanese in internment camps was a genocidal act. It was an attempt to eliminate a culture because of a perception that they were "the enemy" when they were not.
But I am not talking about Japanese internment camps nor am I justifying them. Again, I am talking about celebrating the independence day of the country invading yours. I just don't see how banning that is genocide.
You're talking about "the enemy" which, as noted, is a relative term.
Actively quashing a culture with the intent to eliminate it is genocide. That's item (c) of the definition.
I gave a specific scenario. A country refusing to let people celebrate the independence day of the invading force. Which is who I was defining as "the enemy," and I'm not sure how you weren't clear on that. In this case, "the enemy" is Russia, which I think you agree with me about.
And I just do not see how Ukraine banning the celebration of Russian independence day counts as genocide.
What the fuck is wrong with me is that I asked a question, three people responded, including yourself, and refused to answer it.
No wait, that's what the fuck is wrong with you three.
Not teaching the local language in schools, to instead force them to use your own is denying it and it is genocide.
Go to China and look at how they are wiping our local ethnicity through exactly that, they are forcing generations to grow up learning Mandarin in schools, legislating that TV must be in Mandarin, etc. and through this they are causing languages like Cantonese to lose their daily usage and thus die off.
It's what a large swathe of Europe did during the 19th and 20th century, where local languages (and their corresponding cultures) were basically killed, e.g. everyone in France basically speaks Parisian France, with only Brittany holding out its culture.
This is revolting to hear anyone say.
You entirely avoided my question and I think you know why.
There are enclaves of people with American heritage in Mexico. Some have been there for generations. If the U.S. invaded and Mexico said they couldn't celebrate the 4th of July, would that be genocide?