this post was submitted on 20 Jun 2024
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[–] Zehzin 10 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (4 children)

This legitimately trips up learners. How if the noun is female, it's correct to use feminine articles/pronouns/etc regardless of the person's gender, even if you know they're male. (or vice-versa).

That and plurals defaulting to male.

[–] dustyData 5 points 5 months ago

Just be careful, because the person can be the noun, then the adjective takes on the person's desired gender.

[–] [email protected] 3 points 5 months ago

It might be, you know, hear me out, that "grammatical gender" is a historical misnomer caused by linguistics initially practically only looking at Indo-European languages, which tend to have three noun classes with the word for "woman", "man", and "thing" all being in a different category so they became known as feminine, masculine, and neuter, with words assigned to them pseudo-randomly via phonetics. But really noun classes are a much more general thing, Bantu languages have up to 20. Persons, fruits, plants, locations, such things.

At least in Indo-European languages it's mostly about ease of reference: "I see a cup and a table. She is broken". Assuming that cup is female and table male (as in German) that is a very clear and concise statement.

[–] SkunkWorkz 3 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

plurals defaulting to male.

Except when referring to a group of women. Like “Dos profesoras”

[–] ItWobblesAndItDangles 2 points 5 months ago

As someone currently learning, this is really useful to know