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Most people know that a microwave works by exciting water molecules, but I'm not interested in the dangers of the high voltage/current of a magnetron. I wonder what might be possible with scrap consumer drivers such as a piezo, speaker drivers, or ultrasonic inducers, preferably at a frequency outside of the core human audible spectrum.

  1. Would an induced vibration in an around 60°C, lightly convective environment, likely significantly increase the evaporation rate of water moisture absorbed within the filament of a spool of consumer grade 3d printing filament such as PLA, PETG, PC, TPU, or Aramid?
  2. Would certain frequencies likely alter performance?
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To which degree in your FOV would the plane reach?

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(Disclaimer: So first I wanted to emphasize and acknowledge that this can be a sensitive and emotional topic. This question is solely because I'm curious and am trying to understand it from an educational/sociological perspective. I know that a lot of people online can have a short temper but this is not a bait, I just genuinely wanna understand. I hope I will find a few more intellectual people here who won't get offended and can give a more empirical answer. And please apologize if my English is not perfect, English is not my native language and I'm just 21.)

So as a German I'm very close and familiar with the horrible actions that humanity committed in the past. I'd say compared to America who enslaved people based on their skin color Germany was way worse by mass executing and enslaving people based on their ethnicity/religion.

But there is one big difference that I don't understand: Here in Germany we are extensively educated about what happened in the 3rd Reich. It's a big part about our education to learn and understand what horrible things happened and why they happened to make sure this never happens again. This kinda lead to the point where many Germans are deeply ashamed just for being a German (even though they're quite far detached from what happened) and this is also a reason why you won't find many German flags hanging here.

So I'm not much aware about Americas education on their slavery but I experienced extensive racism and misunderstanding from Americans about race to the point where many (of course not all but many) Americans make a big deal out of race as if it defines their core personality and seem to overly obsess to the point where it seems people get different opportunities and are still to this day getting treated unfairly based on their skin. Even though every educated person knows that skin color is not changing someone's personality since we're biologically all the same race called homo sapiens sapiens and what people call "race" is not scientifically accurate but rather a social construct. This seems to go further where people still use racial slurs that have been used for slaves (like the so called n-word) and people overly focusing on skin color like saying they don't wanna be friends with white/black people or don't wanna date them. And it almost seems like it's getting worse in a way and was somewhat better maybe around the 80's.

As a German this feels very weird and wrong to many of us (I talked to many Germans about this who feel similar including Germans who lived in America for a while). Because the equivalence would be if we still continued to make a big thing out of whether someone is a Jude or not which we don't. Whether someone is a Jew or how black or white someone is, really isn't a thing at all here. Of course I'm totally aware that there are still many racist people and even neo Nazis in Germany (but also in the US and every part of the world) but the general way of thinking about "race" in everyday life seems to be very different.

Because to me this stereotype that people solely have low cognitive abilities based on their skin color is very outdated. We all have different skin, there are no lines, humans are colorful and not "black or white". I wonder if there have been strong efforts of American politics and society to get rid of these stereotypes and gain equality for everyone. Because I wonder what the reasons are why this seems like not being the case (at least to the extent it should be) and it seems unnecessarily divisive. Since to me educating about these stereotypes and not putting people into boxes is the key for getting rid of it when there is a mass willingness of people wanting to see each as people and not just as a color and finally put this behind. Might there maybe be industrial or political interests in keeping this divisiveness?

Like I said I'm very open minded and am trying to understand. Please have understandment for my perspective and try to be thoughtful in your answer.

In the end of the day I would just wish for whole humanity that we could put those toxic and destructive actions to the past and start embrace loving everyone for who they are as an individual.

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I had chagas as a kid, and it wreaked havoc on my body. One doc pointed out I probably had some organ scarring. That was over ten years ago. So, as the title, do I need to be on my toes as I get older?

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I'm thinking that hanging still doesn't stress the fiber but possibly makes it stiff and brittle while a gentle motion caused a small wear but keeps the textile flexible. Any material science people in the house?

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Is it just a matter of not being worth it? I see cooling towers releasing what appears to be a ton of steam, pretty high up. If that steam were captured at the top and allowed to condense, wouldn't that result in a ton of water with a lot of gravitational potential energy? That water could then be released and used to power water turbines. Maybe I'm overestimating the amount of water being released as steam, or underestimating how much is needed to spin a water turbine to get a meaningful result, but it seems like wasted energy to me.

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They seam to have a flatness of λ/2 - λ/4 and are quite cheap, 10 bucks for a 25mm diameter one (that 1/5 the price of a normal 25mm secondary elliptical mirror)

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Could they reasonably survive? If so, what would be the effects of such an introduction?

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Whether it be social media use or access to pornography, are there valid studies that have looked into this? I feel like I've only seen anecdotes, or "inappropriate for children", but no evidence, studies, or journals to support this claim.

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submitted 4 weeks ago* (last edited 4 weeks ago) by [email protected] to c/askscience
 
 

I have a stomach flu. My government recommends me to eat as normally as possible.

I've generally had no appetite.

And the idea of eating foods, even bland, often makes me feel nauseous.

And when I do eat, I often want to puke what I ate.

Why does my body do this if I'm supposed to fill my guts with food?

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This study is talking about two groups, one with a target INR of 2.0-2.5 and the other with a target INR of 2.5-3.5. The higher dose is the current standard dose.

The outcomes were extremely close group to group and it looks like the Confidence Interval was greater than 1.5%, so the study was not adequately powered to have confidence of non inferiority. Is that interpretation correct? Obviously the difference in the groups was not large, but it reads to me that they couldn't be sure it was close enough to not be worse with the lower dose, therefore they can't eliminate the possibility that low dose treatment is more dangerous than current dose? If so, would they do another study or would that basically amount to p-hacking? Further thoughts are appreciated.

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Say we have all the empirical evidence from 19th-century science prior to the observation of the wavelike diffraction of matter particles, plus 21st-century math and theory to construct an alternative explanation.

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I feel the obvious answer should be "no" but help me think this through. It came from the previous Q on blackholes and am posting here for more visibility.

So considering two blackholes rotating about each other and eventually combining. It's in this situation that we get gravitational waves which we can detect (LIGO experiments). But what happens in the closing moments when the blackholes are within each others event horizon but not yet combined (and so still rotating rapidly about each other). Do the gravitational waves abruptly stop? Or are we privy to this "information" about what's going on inside an event horizon.

Thinking more generally, if the distribution of mass inside an event horizon can affect spacetime outside of the horizon then what happens in the following situation:

imagine a gigantic blackhole, one that allows a long time between passing the horizon and being crushed. You approach the horizon in a giant spacecraft and hover at a safe distance. You release a supermassive probe to descend past the horizon. The probe is supermassive in the way a mountain is supermassive. The intention is to be able to detect it's location via perturbation in the gravity field alone. Similar to how an actual mountain causes a pendulum to hang a miniscule yet measurable distance off the vertical.

Say the probe now descends down past the horizon, at some distance off the normal. Say a quarter mile to the 'left' if you consider the direction of the blackholes gravitational pull.

Let's say you had set the probes computer to perform some experiment, and a simple "yay/nay" indicated by it either staying on its current course down (yay) or it firing it's rockets laterally so that it approaches the direct line been you and the singularity and ends up about a quarter mile 'right' (to indicate nay).

The question is, is the relative position of the mass of this probe detectable by examining the resultant gravitational force exerted on your spaceship? Had it remained just off of centre minutely to the 'left' where it started to indicate the probe communicating 'yay' to you, or has it now deflected minutely to the right indicating 'nay'?

Whether the answer to this is yes or no, I'm confused what would happen in real life?

If the probes relative location is not detectable via gravity once it crosses the horizon, what happens as it approaches? Your very sensitive gravity equipment originally had a slight deviation to the left when both you and probe were outside the horizon. Does it abruptly disappear when it crosses the horizon? If so where does it go? The mass of the probe will eventually join with the mass of the singularity to make the blackhole slightly more massive. But does the gravitational pull of its mass instantly change from the location in the horizon where it crossed (about a quarter mile to the 'left') to now being at the singularity directly below. Anything "instant" doesn't seem right.

Or.. it's relative position within the horizon is detectable based on you examining the very slight deviations of your super sensitive pendulum equipment on board your space craft. And you're able to track it's relative position as it descends, until it's minute contribution to gravity has coalesced with the main blackhole.

But if this is the case then aren't we now getting information from within the horizon? Couldn't you set your probe to do experiments and then pass information back to you by it performing some rudimentary dance of manoeuvres? Which also seems crazy?

So both options seem crazy? Which is it?

(Note, this is a thought experiment. The probe is supermassive using some sort of future tech that's imaginable but far from possible by today's standards. Think a small planet with fusion powered engines or whatever. The point is, in principle, mass is detectable, and mass is moveable. Is this a way to peek inside a blackhole??)

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In the same vein, what about a stellar-sized black hole like Cygnus X-1? At this size the rate of evaporation is quicker, right?

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I love space, I have since I was a kid but I'm not a professional by any means. All my knowledge comes from years of watching documentaries, reading space/science magazines, and looking things up on wikipedia/stack exchange etc.

Red Dwarfs are thought to be the most common types of stars in the universe, but despite that they're generally thought to be a poor choice for life to evolve. From what I've read, this is because planets orbiting in the habitable zone are close enough to be most likely tidally locked, and on top of that, it's thought that Red Dwarf stars have powerful and frequent flares.

Red Dwarfs are thought to have even more powerful flares than our own Sun, despite being significantly less massive than our parent star. Why is this? What causes a star with a potential mass as low as 0.08 solar masses to have such powerful and frequent flares? Why do more massive stars not have comparatively more massive flares?

I've also read that TOI-700 is thought to be a fairly stable Red Dwarf, as in it doesn't seem to flare up the way a lot of other Red Dwarfs are thought to do. What are the possible causes for this discrepancy in flare activity among Red Dwarf stars? Why is it thought that Red Dwarfs are generally quite grumpy and emit a lot of powerful flares?

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