this post was submitted on 06 Jan 2025
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Sorry but fly on the wall. The link you posted I have read through and appears to actually discredit your assertion.
Genuinely would love to hear more if you have the expertise/time? I’m not that great with economics and I don’t have a jstor account sadly but I have always understood that industrialization served to depress wages and so was surprised by PugJesus’ counterclaim.
How does it discredit my assertion when it clearly expresses an upward trend in real wages in both the early and middle Industrial Revolution in England?