this post was submitted on 30 Oct 2024
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If a man had an assault rifle and a handgun, and he put down the assault rifle, would you describe him as 'unarmed'? If so, I don't think you can describe removing assault rifles as 'disarming' people.
No, I wouldn't call that disarmament. If someone else took away his assault rifle by force (or threat of force), that's disarmament. As is legally preventing someone from acquiring an assault rifle. Felons are disarmed, for example. The Supreme Court affirms that people have the right to keep and bear personal arms, and also that the government cannot legally limit that right without serious historical precedent. Funnily enough, New York State tried justifying their concealed carry legislation by citing bigoted laws from our "Anglo-American tradition."
My point was that if the man is still 'armed', he hasn't been 'disarmed', he just has one less (type of) gun. For example, if I told you that there was a man in my street with two guns, and then added that he'd now been disarmed (forcibly or otherwise), you would assume that he now had zero guns.
If a man had one of his arms cut off but kept the other one, you'd still call him an amputee. Similarly, if your guns are taken away from you by force, you have been disarmed. There are different degrees to this - I would argue that people who live in blue states are generally more disarmed than people living in red states - but that doesn't change the fact that a disarmament has taken place.
Your analogy would be more like asking if a man who put his arm inside his shirt could be called an amputee.