this post was submitted on 24 May 2024
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[–] [email protected] 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

I of course don't speak ancient languages, but I believe pronouns existed 2000 years ago too.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Yes, but some languages can drop the pronoun in favor of some other linguistic construct. For example in finnish 'I am driving" can be said "minä ajan" but "minä"(I) can be dropped completely to just "ajan" because base word for driving is "ajaa" and when I am doing it, it is inflected to "ajan"

[–] [email protected] 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

That's also true of Estonian and Spanish, but in the case of "I am he", you'd shorten away the actor, but not the target of the action, so you'd keep one pronoun still at least.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Also the whole theoretical discussion is pointless because we probably have a guess of jesus' native language and knowledge of pronoun system in it

[–] BluesF 1 points 5 months ago

Aramaic, maybe also Hebrew. Both have pronouns.