this post was submitted on 11 Nov 2023
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[–] PM_Your_Nudes_Please 57 points 1 year ago (2 children)

For the people who don’t get it: To the Greeks (who primarily spoke Greek and Latin,) Germanic and proto European languages (like old English) sounded funny. The Greeks joked that it sounded like “barbar barbar” which is basically the Greek version of “blah blah blah blah”. So the people who spoke those foreign languages got referred to as barbarians.

It was basically used as a pejorative. It was a way for Greeks to discriminate against non-Greeks.

[–] [email protected] 5 points 1 year ago (1 children)
[–] Madison420 4 points 1 year ago
[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago (2 children)
[–] PM_Your_Nudes_Please 20 points 1 year ago (3 children)

It’s technically Proto-Indo-European. PIE is the base language that later developed into most of the European languages. It’s a simple language that evolved into the various European languages as people spread out and groups became more isolated. Basically, as they became more isolated they formed their own unique dialects, which then became distinct languages.

PIE is believed to be the root language for Spanish, English, French, German, Italian, Hindi, Urdu, and a handful of others.

[–] [email protected] 9 points 1 year ago

Your examples are a bit odd given the context. Spanish, French, and Italian developed from Latin (which you stated the Greeks spoke). English, German, and Scandinavian languages developed from Proto-Germanic. I'm assuming you didn't mean to imply that Latin wasn't a PIE language?

[–] [email protected] 7 points 1 year ago

Yes, except it's not as simple as you think. It is heavily inflected and has a lot of cases, 8, I think.

I know this because I speak Lithuanian, which is the oldest living language and the one most similar to PIE.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 11 months ago

Greek is also Indo-European though.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Civilisations on the European continent before Europe became a concept.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago (2 children)

But is it a language? I only know of Proto Germanic and Proto Indo-European that would be relevant here but I’m not a linguist.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 11 months ago (1 children)

PIE was the language (or languages) the proto-indo-European peoples spoke during their processes of migration into Europe, the Middle East and South Asia (around 6-4k years ago).

So most of the languages from those regions, from Hindi, to Persian, to Greek and English are all PIE, as these are all descendants from the PIE peoples.

We can reconstruct it by analysing these modern languages, their recent ancestors etc. and compare them.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 11 months ago (1 children)

I know. However I was wondering what proto European was supposed to be.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 11 months ago

Those would be the PIE that entered Europe, so after they split from the PIE that entered Iran and India (the Indo-Iranians).

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

proto European languages (like old English)

No, it's a category, and the two languages you mentioned would, I assume, fit into that category.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago

That makes sense somewhat, although it would be a rather broad category.