this post was submitted on 06 Aug 2023
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No Stupid Questions

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No such thing. Ask away!

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[–] [email protected] 51 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (4 children)

The short answer is that the name for "old world" countries in a language isn't translated, it is simply what "we" call "them", not what "they" call themselves.

Using Greece as an example for English, English has a lot of French influence, which in turn had a lot of Latin influence. It is believed the early Latin (ie modern day Italian) peoples first met Graecians, a tribe likely from Boeotia in modern day Greece, and used the name to refer to all people from the same place. By the time of the Romans, this was the name and was then spread throughout the empire, including back to Greece itself.

A more modern or current example would be how people often called The Netherlands, Holland. Same idea, just several millenia apart.

[–] whileloop -4 points 1 year ago (2 children)

I agree with you, but I think the name Netherlands comes from the land being low.

[–] [email protected] 13 points 1 year ago (1 children)

But we call it Holland, even though Holland is just one portion of the whole country.

[–] whileloop 2 points 1 year ago

Please, let me live in a world where Americans call it Netherlands.

-An American who thinks calling it Holland is dumb.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Yes, it literally means "lowlands", but that's its actual name used by the people from that country in the primary language of the people from that country.

Holland is just a region in the Netherlands (today the provinces of Noord-Holland and Zuid-Holland collectively), but people refer to the entire country as "Holland" sometimes.

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