this post was submitted on 19 Nov 2024
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[–] [email protected] 28 points 2 weeks ago (4 children)

Why are all basic civil rights not enshrined in laws, but instead resting on brittle law precedents in the US?

[–] inv3r510n 30 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (1 children)

Because it’s all imaginary and I can’t believe people seek comfort in a piece of paper and the concept of rule of law.

A strongman, such as potentially trump but it could be any authoritarian in any country - will just wipe his ass with the constitution and do whatever the fuck he wants. It’s not like the law is going to stop him. He’s a convicted felon and he’s still going to be president despite that. And the J6 case (the only one with any real merit, IMO) that they had four years to prosecute is now dropped.

Laws don’t matter. Laws don’t protect you. Laws exist to protect the in group and punish the out group.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 week ago (1 children)

I see it as less about punishing the out group and more about controlling them instead.

[–] inv3r510n 2 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Those locked up from the war on drugs might beg to differ

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 week ago (1 children)
[–] inv3r510n 1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

Yup

Democrats are just as bourgeois as republicans, the drug war keeps the poors and minorities in line.

[–] PugJesus 27 points 2 weeks ago

Because our legislature is dysfunctional in its very structuring.

[–] [email protected] 6 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

That's the way English Common Law works contrary to French Civil Law

[–] [email protected] 15 points 2 weeks ago (3 children)

That's not really an answer to their question. Canada (with the exception of Quebec), also operates on the English Common Law model, but we've passed specific laws that intentionally codify things like abortion and minority rights. Just recently we added "gender identity and gender expression" as specific categories on which it is illegal to discriminate.

So, unlike the US where the right to gay marriage is the result of a court case, in Canada gay marriage started out that way, but was then codified in law with the passage of the Civil Marriage Act in 2005. And speaking of English Common Law, the same is true in England, where gay marriage was legally enshrined in 2014.

So it's perfectly valid to ask why the US government has consistently failed to do this.

[–] inv3r510n 6 points 2 weeks ago (3 children)

Off topic but how does Canada square away their English system with the one province under the French system? They’re nearly opposite systems.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 2 weeks ago

Criminal law in Quebec is still based on the federal common law, it's just matters of provincial jurisdiction that are under civil law.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Louisiana runs off French civil law. They work around it.

[–] inv3r510n 1 points 2 weeks ago

Today I learned!

[–] [email protected] 3 points 2 weeks ago

Same way the US squares away their federal system. Some areas of law are federal, some are provincial. Quebec's use of Napoleonic Law only applies to those areas covered by the Quebec Courts. Federal matters are handled in Federal Courts, so they're not subject to Quebecois legal principles.

[–] [email protected] -1 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago)

Maybe Canada was more proactive than the USA but it's still a result of the type of legal system they use, that wouldn't happen with Civil law.

There's still plenty of things in Canada that are left to precedence, we don't pass laws every time something comes up.

[–] [email protected] 4 points 2 weeks ago

The simulation ran out of computational power and this is AI trying to use the last 0.1% of the Neural Processing Unit to continue generating a story...