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It means I didn’t go look at the laws of 50 different states, correct. Doesn’t mean I didn’t do any research at all; I did confirm for multiple states where I heard people saying this (OH, NC, and TX) and I confirmed that only those two states allocate votes based on districts while all others allocate all voters to one candidate. Maybe there’s some other method out there other than district-driven or popular vote–driven; I’m holding space that I could be unaware of something rather than trying to claim I know everything.
I took it to mean "I don't know if this is actually true or not, but I'm going to post it anyway" which is exactly where tons of quickly-spreading misinformation comes from and how it gets passed on.
Specifically, the claim that it's the popular vote overall seems off to me, though I don't currently have time to look into it (I did some quick googling but did not get a conclusive answer). What I mean to say is that, yes, all of the electoral votes are allocated to whomever is considered a winner and it is not proportional (except in two states). I was under the impression, however, that it went by districts so whomever won the most districts got the full share of votes (i.e. not the overall statewide popular vote).
followed by:
Seriously?
I had to start work and I was talking about actual post rather than comments, but I suppose that's a fair criticism. I did mean it to mean that I was coming back to it (as I am now).