this post was submitted on 26 Jul 2024
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So, what @[email protected] said is correct.
The existence of Hamas, and their inexcusable actions, are a direct consequence of Israel's militaristic apartheid and colonial oppression of the Palestinian people.
Hypothetical: If there was record from mid-WW2 of Jewish resistance fighters committing actions against the German population that are of the same nature as what Hamas does to Israel today, would that have made the oppression and violent action of the Nazis valid? Or would that be a distasteful, yet potentially necessary reaction to the conditions that they were subjected to?