this post was submitted on 06 Jul 2024
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[–] [email protected] 1 points 4 months ago (1 children)

No, they were not.

They were forms of government that had important difference with what a state is. The monopoly in the use of force, for giving just one. To have a government force is not the same as to have a state that have monopoly of force in a land, that includes one.or.more nation and that is independent of the people that are part of the government class (as in group of people, not as in Marx/Weber concepts), that is why they are treated different and political science start studying state as it is from a westfalian order perspective and not from before that. Whit this I'm not saying there wasn't state like orders, but it wasn't state, in the same.way as atenean democracy was not a democracy as we understand it (for the Greeks, democracy was a perversion , actually)

[–] NateNate60 1 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago)

Your definition of "state" is different from what most people consider a state to be.