s clearly indicates the ‘belonging’ occurs ‘at conception’, not the production of disparately sized cells. When the production occurs is not specified at all and nothing in the definition depends upon when it occurs, merely that it does at some point. This creates it own set of problems, but not the ones everyone is pointing and laughing
Firstly, I have an MD and would have never commented on this without reading the specific text from the WH. Med school curricula cover this in molecular biology, embryology, medical genetics, pediatrics and obstetrics, and endocrinology.
Secondly, the definition implies that zygotes can be classified as male/female at conception, which they obviously cannot be without further clarification. Your "good faith" reasoning is that you can retrospectively make that assignment, but there are no criteria to determine how that assignment ultimately happens, which therefore requires additional layers of "good faith" reasoning. Which takes us back to, yeah, the WH definition is hot garbage.
Can you point me to the part of the text where they provide clarification from a biological standpoint? This language sets up the interpretation: "the policy of the United States to recognize two sexes, male and female [...] grounded in fundamental and incontrovertible reality". So if this is an "incontrovertible reality" then why do people have such an easy time refuting it?
Which gives me flashbacks about having to learn the specific adrenal enzyme dysfunctions that lead to erroneous sex-assignments at birth. But again, I don't think people need biology degrees to have an understanding of this and I'd like society to stop trying to give "good faith" interpretations to texts that are explicitly written in bad faith.