this post was submitted on 25 Mar 2024
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Both are legislative bodies, so I'm curious about how they structurally differ.

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[–] doublejay1999 1 points 10 months ago (1 children)

The Lords are not elected , for starters. They are hereditary peers (aristocracy whose ancestors did favours for William the Conqueror). Or political appointments.

Funny huh ?

[–] kescusay 2 points 10 months ago (2 children)

I'd heard something like that, but I didn't know it was actually hereditary! That's ridiculous. Is there a good reason to maintain such a system?

[–] doublejay1999 2 points 10 months ago

I guess it’s a very effective subversion of representative democracy. !

[–] Lemming421 1 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago)

We look at the American system where both houses are elected and how that has just turned politics into even more of a popularity contest.

On the one hand, the entire concept of a hereditary aristocracy is anti-democratic.

On the other, I think the theory is a hereditary position is supposed to be able to think further ahead and be less influenced by populism.