this post was submitted on 15 Jan 2024
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If Jews are indigenous to Judea does that mean that Jews never intermarried with Jews of other countries? And if they did, how can they then be called indigenous any more?
Actually the opposite, it's a line of reasoning that supposes that no-one is really indigenous to anywhere in particular, thereby avoiding the good ol' extreme claims to sovereignity.
The history of Israel is littered with invasion anyway, so again, the idea of indigenous peoples at this point requires a reworking of the definition of 'indigenous' to people who have lived there for some time.
I'm expecting a bit of the ol' 'It was the Jew's to begin with' so I'll just say in advance there's no point in my continuing if that starts cropping up in replies.