this post was submitted on 29 Jul 2023
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Did the original author(s) of Mark Gospel use the Septuagint? If so what evidence do we have from the text that is true? (self.academicbiblical)
submitted 2 years ago by afraid_of_zombies to c/academicbiblical
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[–] kromem 3 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago)

While I can't speak to the original author (as I'm partial to a proto-Mark per Burkett and see the didactic scene in Mark 13 as potentially being a post-70 CE interpolation providing explanation of a more generic saying in 13:1-2), there's evidence of LXX use in Mark 13:14's "abomination of desolation":

...βδέλυγμα των ερημώσεων...

  • Daniel 9:27 in the LXX

...βδέλυγμα τῆς ἐρημώσεως...

  • Mark 13:14

Given the ambiguity of the original Hebrew in Daniel 9:27, that the author (or here redactor) of Mark is following the LXX here to arrive at this specific wording seems probable.