this post was submitted on 11 Feb 2025
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I don't know any lawyers personally, so I can't ask them. It sounds as though you might have some sources you could provide, though, if you're parroting them? I'd love to read more if you have any links handy. I tried searching the web for the phrase but was unsuccessful.
I did find the Wikipedia article on the word "militia" and it suggests that the accepted "official" definition may have been changed by the "Militia Act of 1903".
I do find it interesting how one can change the constitution by making official changes to the meanings of language, without a constitutional amendment. That seems concerning.
Sounds like they did not redefine a word as you say, and invented two new ones instead.
Sounds like they were scared individual states and state militias would gain too much power and wanted a militia the Feds could control with Federal money, with thegoal to have some kind of power over the states and not piss off governors of said states and deter them from FAFO.
Thank you for the links and interesting reads... So it sounds like the Militia Act of 1903 is the source of all these issues, and likely can be argued is unconstitutional from the start since they wanted to redefine a word from the Constitution
I didn't intend to suggest that they redefined the word, I didn't say that as such, but I agree that they may have made official changes to the word (splitting it, as you say) in some fashion.
It does read a bit like a federal power play meant to consolidate power, though the re-framing of the word "Militia" was not subsequently used as a way to undermine the 2nd amendment, as one might suspect if that were the case. One must wonder if the NRA (established in 1871), or another interested party, had any hand in influencing Charles Dick's advancement of this legislation.
To me it reads more as a way to protect the 2nd amendment's "militia" verbiage from scrutiny.