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McLaren admits F1 has been in 'the era of Max Verstappen' - Motorsport Week
(www.motorsportweek.com)
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I'm no native English speaker, but "has been" just sounds like it was in the past and is present no longer.
So to me that sentence just implies that the "era" is over.
from https://www.grammarbook.com/blog/verbs/have-been-vs-has-been-vs-had-been/
apparently you got a wrong definition, in fact "has been" implies that is was happening in the past and is still happening in the present.
"had been" would be the alternative that defines an activity that happened in the past, in a specific time frame, and is not happening anymore.
sorry, don't want to sound dogmatic here. i'm also no english native speaker was just curious. but i can understand that it sounds a little like it's over.