this post was submitted on 22 Nov 2024
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[–] Stovetop 117 points 5 days ago (9 children)

As a not-math person, it's 0, right? Following the pattern, there would eventually be an (x-x) which would introduce a multiply by 0 into the problem and delete everything like a black hole from which no number escapes?

[–] Carnelian 68 points 5 days ago (8 children)
[–] [email protected] 18 points 5 days ago (6 children)

Please correct me if I'm wrong, but x isn't specifically part of the sequence a-z, right? And a-z isn't explicitly a consecutive sequence. Both are implied, but they're all just placeholders for individual numbers, not necessarily in relation to each other.

If that is the intention, it's poorly done. (1-x)(2-x)(3-x)...(∞-x) is much clearer and understandable.

[–] Mistic 3 points 4 days ago* (last edited 4 days ago)

You could argue it's implied that a-z sequence contains x. But I agree that it's a bit ambiguous.

Here's what a better notation would look like:

(1-x)(2-x)(3-x)...(n-x) for x from N

Or

(b0 - x)(b1 -x)(b2-x)...(bn-x)

This way, both Bn and X could be any number and not just natural ones.

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