lunatic_lobster

I agree with everything here. I mostly was tackling this from the OP's question about if their family member was inherently bad for owning real estate, and I think my answer would slide to the no side.

If these properties are largely going to fund a retirement and are providing under market prices for rent I don't see what's wrong. (Although I have no problem taking that away and beefing up public retirement funding in lieu)

But my point is that there are certain categories of people who need access to income that they themselves do not produce. An able bodied capitalist is not one of these people, but a worker who is using real estate as a retirement vehicle is.

I don't disagree that landlords are for the most part acting parasitically. However I would argue that in order for society to function "parasitism" is a requirement. I want to be clear and state that THIS form isn't required, but some form is.

Let me explain my thinking. Nearly half of the population doesn't work. The population of non workers can almost entirely fall within these categories: children, attending school, disabled (mentally or physically), or retired.

These populations need money even though they are not producing any. I would guess that most of the extracted profit that comes out of "mom and pop" rentals goes to providing for non-worker expenses.

Now I believe these expenses should be covered by taxations and redistribution of the factor income, but since we have a pathetic system of this in the US it's hard for me to fault someone for using investment property to hedge against child care and/or retirement

You definitely can max both a 401k and IRA you can also max an HSA. All these combined allow for an individual (not family) to save $34,150 (there are some edge cases I'm ignoring). Someone who can afford to save almost the US median salary amount is almost certainly going to have a higher benefit from traditional than Roth.

Also, the math completely changes if you aren't maxing because if you aren't maxing the contribution than adding more to the contribution gives you more tax advantaged investments (instead of taxable brokerage investments).

You seem to be using many different assumptions separately. In the first you assume you are maxing a Roth IRA (in my initial response I was also considering 401ks as many of them have Roth options nowadays). If you are maxing your Roth 401k and Roth IRA you are likely a high earner and therefore likely in a higher tax bracket than you will be in retirement. This means that kind of person will likely prefer traditional investments.

Your assumption there is someone maxing out their retirement options and in a relatively low tax bracket doesn't seem like reality. So in your math example they wouldn't be putting the extra in a taxable brokerage account but in the same tax advantaged account.

Quick edit: also I'm confused on the extra $400/year into taxable account. It should be $1,250 per year (25% of the 5,000) which would be closer to $600,000 before the capital gains tax.

I largely agree with all the points made here however I think the overall message is a bit misleading. I would disagree that Roth investments are the preferred for long term investments. You aren't accounting for the opportunity cost of the taxes paid in the initial investment year. Those taxes, while small compared to what you will withdraw tax free are also losing out on 8x-ing themselves (as you would have invested that amount in a traditional tax advantaged account).

What this means is Roth is the preferable savings method if you are in a lower marginal tax rate than you expect to be in retirement. However traditional is better if you are in a higher marginal rate than you expect to be in retirement. If the marginal tax rate was the same when you invest and retire then the difference between Roth and traditional would be nil.

I see no evidence to suggest that the majority of posters here are not debating in good faith, most posters here seem to me just normal humans who have biases and emotions - but I'd hardly call that bad faith. If you think this low of lemmy and its users I don't really understand why you are spending time here.

Even if your assumptions of lemmy users where true I don't see how that affords you the opportunity to discuss without nuance. Discussing in absolutes and without nuance would categorize you in the "weaponize nuance to try and shift goalposts" crowd I'd say.

But you do you

I find it funny you claim there is clearly no debate while having a debate about this. The reason the person linked that article because of a different section:

Unrelated to the economic philosophy described in this article, the term "neoliberalism" is also used to describe a centrist political movement from modern American liberalism in the 1970s. According to political commentator David Brooks, prominent neoliberal politicians included Al Gore and Bill Clinton of the Democratic Party of the United States.[48]

Aha! You might say, it clearly says it is unrelated to the economic philosophy, but the point is that the word can often refer to different things, including Democrats.

Here is another quote from that link:

Neoliberalism is distinct from liberalism insofar as it does not advocate laissez-faire economic policy, but instead is highly constructivist and advocates a strong state to bring about market-like reforms in every aspect of society.

Sounds a lot like the Democrats to me.

As for your talk of comparing European liberals to American liberals being "propaganda" I disagree. I don't know if this specific movement in lemmy that you speak, but I don't think it is propaganda to show that one could want to shrink a gigantic government to medium one (European liberal) and they would be the same as someone who wants to expand a small government to medium one (American liberals). Healthcare being an obvious example here: the United Kingdom wanting to privatize NHS could be considered similar to Democrats who want to just regulate an already privatized system. The end state is the similarity not the action taken to get there.

I think this is an interesting discussion and am not trying to prove that European libs are the same as American libs, just proving that there is clearly debate here.

Yeah I dunno about the case law, but that was kind of an aside. The point is I believe they can ask you to check receipt, and if you don't they can't sick the police on you (probably) but they can just ban you from the store, same as Costco.

I have heard this same explanation a number of times but it doesn't quite make sense to me. Sure at Costco you are agreeing to allow them to search your stuff via the terms, however it is not illegal as far as I am aware (ianal) to ignore this. The consequences may be that your membership will be revoked, but you haven't broken the law.

Now for Walmart, if you refuse to have your stuff checked you also haven't broken the law but if Walmart decided to they could ban you from the store (effectively the same as Costco's consequence).

So they are effectively the same in outcome, maybe you are more likely to be banned at Costco than Walmart.

As for if they can detain you if they suspect you are stealing, many US states have "shopkeers privilege" laws that do in fact allow stores to detain customers who they have a reasonable suspicion are stealing. This would apply to both Costco and Walmart regardless of the "terms". Now would refusing to have your bags checked count as reasonable suspicion? Who knows, I bet there is case law on this somewhere, but I'm too lazy to look.

This isn't exactly answering your question, but I thought I'd share this strange gadget the twiddler 3. It's a full keyboard you can hold in one hand and it uses "chords" (think chords on a piano) to achieve a full keyboard with only a few buttons.

Seems you can achieve a typing speed of around 60 wpm with a bit of practice, might make typing a bit easier and it is super mobile unlike a real keyboard.