this post was submitted on 26 Apr 2024
174 points (82.7% liked)
PC Gaming
8655 readers
670 users here now
For PC gaming news and discussion. PCGamingWiki
Rules:
- Be Respectful.
- No Spam or Porn.
- No Advertising.
- No Memes.
- No Tech Support.
- No questions about buying/building computers.
- No game suggestions, friend requests, surveys, or begging.
- No Let's Plays, streams, highlight reels/montages, random videos or shorts.
- No off-topic posts/comments, within reason.
- Use the original source, no clickbait titles, no duplicates. (Submissions should be from the original source if possible, unless from paywalled or non-english sources. If the title is clickbait or lacks context you may lightly edit the title.)
founded 1 year ago
MODERATORS
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
As far as I know (not kuch actually) there are some tries to slightly reform German (DoktorInnen and alike), and maybe even Spanish where in a group with mixed males& females you'd target them with male pronoun and seemingly that makes some people sad.
It's indeed not an issue with Hungarian, although I've seen a party invitation online that decided that it needs to be inclusive, so the spoken language should be English, and THEN they complained about pronouns. Weird.
That German "capital I" is close to what I'm asking about, but not quite - I'm focusing on agreement, when the form of a word (typically an adjective) is dictated by either grammatical gender of another word or social gender. Specially when dealing with a single individual.
This might be easier to show with an example. From the PT dialogue files:
Note how the form of the word changes from "sozinho" to "sozinha". Other Romance languages and Russian are the same deal in this; German too, with some caveats (if it's a predicative you use the base form).
In this situation, and casual conversation, what do non-binary people feel comfortable using? The two whom I know simply use -a, but that's a sample size of two and heavily biased (both speak the same dialect of the same language in the same city).
I'm asking this in this context because:
*the other user there did mention -x, but if I had to take a guess it's just some Anglo trying to pull out a "chrust me". I'm saying this based on their example - "Latinx" with a capital L (an English spelling convention) and using an adjective that is 90% of the time used by Anglos to lump "all those Latin Americans" together regardless of their local identities. (It sounds as silly as some Brit or Surinamese identifying oneself "as a Germanic", you know?)
[Sorry for the long reply. Also, thank you for your input! :D]
Thanks, I learned a lot :)