this post was submitted on 27 Dec 2023
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The US didn't withdraw food support - it was just reorganized and curtailed somewhat. In terms of the Labour government's culpability, there were a variety of worker's strikes - including dock workers - that resulted in tons of meat and fish going bad. The Labour government eventually ordered the Army to break the strike.
https://pasttense.co.uk/2017/01/08/today-in-londons-transport-history-100s-of-drivers-in-road-haulage-strike-1947/
No - the loans were issued then. The lend-lease was basically entirely forgiven. The loans always had a 5 year grace period.
https://www.nytimes.com/2006/12/28/business/worldbusiness/28iht-nazi.4042453.html
The UK was bankrupt. You got loans from the US, Canada and others that you wish were gifts to stay afloat. At absurdly good rates - and additional aid in rebuilding from the Marshall plan.
A half percent of GDP growth. It was 3% of the GDP of the countries. Did nothing is highly debatable.
Probably not the reason you had to ration in 1953 still, and I'm not sure what betrayal you're referring to.
This was netted out from the lend-lease that was forgiven. You also got to keep all the equipment for rebuilding.
Do you have examples of this?
Do you have examples of this?
You make it sound like the UK was bankrupt because of their own mismanagement. They were basically repelling an invasion for years while being the USA's stepping stone into the European theatre.
Acting like it's noble to build up the country of the destroyed enemy, but not assist the ravaged ally in the same way is really odd.
We did assist that ravaged ally after, with an emergency loan with a very low interest rate, and the UK was the largest beneficiary of the Marshall plan dollars.
France was #2.
I don’t know where this revisionist animosity is coming from, but it’s not reflected in reality.