this post was submitted on 30 Nov 2023
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[–] [email protected] -5 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Not if you consider some of the shit the Commerce Clause has been used to justify. Consider Wickard v. Filburn (1942) in which a farmer who grew too much wheat was penalized, insisted it was for his personal use, and still got smacked down.

[–] TheMauveAvenger 6 points 1 year ago (1 children)

That case was made possible by FDR's New Deal creating limits on wheat production. While I think it could have been argued many different ways, they did present a fairly logical argument using the commerce clause against the ND law.