this post was submitted on 16 Nov 2023
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[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

In France, rape is defined as a sexual act committed under threat, duress, surprise or violence.

Well... yeah? Seems perfectly logical to me. Those can be proven in a court, how do you prove that you did not consent in cases that are not listed above?

Edit: The legifrance article about rape, which the official, state provided explanations and listing of French law, states the above definition, followed by an important addition:

Rape occurs when an act of sexual penetration or an oral-genital act is committed on a person, with violence, coercion, threat or surprise, that is without his consent.

I'm pretty sure the opposition to a redefinition of "rape" is due to provability of the crime, and not a denial of the importance of consent

Edit2: source