this post was submitted on 16 Nov 2023
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Well... yeah? Seems perfectly logical to me. Those can be proven in a court, how do you prove that you did not consent in cases that are not listed above?
Edit: The legifrance article about rape, which the official, state provided explanations and listing of French law, states the above definition, followed by an important addition:
I'm pretty sure the opposition to a redefinition of "rape" is due to provability of the crime, and not a denial of the importance of consent
Edit2: source