85
John Howard says he ‘always had trouble’ with the concept of multiculturalism
(www.theguardian.com)
this post was submitted on 02 Nov 2023
85 points (94.7% liked)
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Not too sure but did the Europeans adopt aboriginal values and practices when they first emigrated to Australia about 200 years ago?
Name a single culture that adopted the values and pracrices of a nation they defeated in warfare. Not saying that i support any of it just sinply that thats how history has always been and going back in an attempt to rewrite history only raises the queation of how far back do we go?
Alexander the Great after his defeat of the Persian empire.
Roman mithraism
(actually the romans did a looooot of cherry picking)
Mmm yeah nar. He did install his own dictators and make new tax men loyal to himself. So i wouldnt exactly call that adoption more ill let u keep some bits of what u have but u owe me tax.
My point is that his logic is paper fucking thin.
If you truly held that to heart then you'd seek to better align your policies to the preexisting cultures and people's of the land you've settled in. It's mostly just a dog whistle.
The Romans after they defeated the Greeks.
i wouldn't consider being made into a slave adopting my values. But then again in history u can only judge a culture or a person by times they existed in.
Slavery in Ancient Greece and Rome wasn't always slavery in the modern 'Atlantic slave trade' sense we have now. For instance a Greek may actually wish to become the slave of a wealthy Roman household in order to gain Roman citizenship when they were bought back off that household.
David Graeber's, Debt goes into this in far better detail, RIP.
Thats a hard question, the way you've posed it, because 'culture' doesn't really indicate a clean homogenous group that rules another, and there'll be few examples because most leaders of nations could be said to be quite disconnected from the winning ruled people's culture anyway, and the kings or emperors were the conquerers really, not the people. But i'll have a go at providing a cleaner example for the sake of the challenge.
The 'Mongols' Kitan or Liao, when they defeated 'China', they knew they wouldn't be able to hold their rule over the coastal populations without having a seat of power. So outwardly they adopted the practices of the Chinese. This is apparently why the Forbidden City was initially Forbidden. Because the mongols used that area, among others, to continue to live privately in tents like they'd always lived.
https://www.birmingham.ac.uk/research/perspective/the-forbidden-city.aspx
Another less clean example would be the 1066 Norman takeover of Britain. The Normans undoubtedly left their mark, but they never actually erradicated the anglo-saxons culture. And in doing so the two cultures mixed. You can see artifacts of this in the etymology of english words, for instance the difference between 'beef and cow' i think is a good example.
This is fairly common throughout history. The Mongols did it to such an extent that the Chinese considered them Chinese when they ruled China. It also happened a lot when various empires conquered Egypt or when Alexander conquered the Persians. It happens more often than not.