this post was submitted on 19 Sep 2023
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Which grammar rule changed since Shakespeare's time? The reason students can still read and understand Shakespeare's works is that the grammar remains the same. Congratulations, you owned yourself.
Just off the top of my head: In some US dialects, rather than a single word changing between negative and positive form (e.g. “I didn’t take any pictures”), instead an entire sentence is shifted into a negative mode (“I didn’t take no pictures”). Traditional grammar rules would dictate that as a double negative, implying the speaker did in fact take pictures, but only an idiot would actually choose interpret it that way.
Next, we have the impact of the internet. “lol” might occasionally be spoken aloud in many circumstances as a substitute for “that’s funny” or something similar. Colloquial written English is all over the place. We now not only use “lol”, but “fwiw,” “afaik,” and many others.
Then there’s emoji. We’re basically using glyphs to express ideas, not unlike how kanji works, and traditional rules of grammar don’t always apply when you’re expressing an idea through pictures, though it’s interesting when it does. Animated GIFs and memes often butcher grammar rules without sacrificing any understanding of intent.
A simple google search turns up many more examples than I could possibly be aware of.
Now it’s your turn. Feel free to explain why you think using “they” as a singular pronoun applies as a grammar rule violation in the 21st century. If you can’t use more than a typical snarky one or two-liner, you should just consider this argument lost and rethink your life.
Dialects aren't the actual language. They're just wilful ignorance.
And, again, vocabulary isn't grammar.
Say everyone bakes a potato. If your neighbor baked theirs differently than you, would that mean they’re ignorant?
Good for you? No one said it was.
False analogy. You're hopeless. Go back to school.
You probably don’t even know what an actual school looks like.
Right. I learned about false analogies in the streets.
You're dismissed.
I'll be waiting until you have an actual argument to make. Until then, maybe reconsider where you get your "information".
Ironically, one of the biggest changes from Shakespeare’s time and now concerned pronouns. We stopped using “thou/thee” as the informal 2nd person and began to only use what had been the formal 2nd person, “you,” and stopped using the verb conjugations for them.
Meanwhile, the 3rd person singular “they” has been in use since Chaucer’s time.
You don't even know the difference between vocabulary and grammar. You're dismissed.
My brother in Christ; I’M AN ENGLISH TEACHER.
If you don’t understand how “we lost an entire pronoun and the verb inflection that went with it” is in fact grammar, I don’t even know what to tell you.
Apparently not a very good one, because:
Bye.
And you, sir, are what my momma likes to call “loud and wrong.”