this post was submitted on 10 Sep 2023
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MeanwhileOnGrad

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Meanwhile On Grad


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[–] [email protected] -2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

No it cannot because communism by definition must be a classless society. If there is a group above others that controls the state, it is no longer classless, and therefore not communist.

And you know, the name derives from communal, so no communal ownership = no communism.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 1 year ago (2 children)

Again, what's your basis for this definition?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago

Generally speaking Marxists and those operating on schools of thought derived or related to Marxism use Marx's original definition of 'Communism' as the end goal of a stateless society, with a socialist state as the necessary intermediate point. This unfortunately gets muddled when people say "I'm a Communist" (meaning I'm forming a socialist state to ACHIEVE communism) and just end up forming a socialist (or 'socialist') state.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago

I just told you.