Asklemmy

44079 readers

771 users here now

A loosely moderated place to ask open-ended questions

Search asklemmy 🔍

If your post meets the following criteria, it's welcome here!

Open-ended question
Not offensive: at this point, we do not have the bandwidth to moderate overtly political discussions. Assume best intent and be excellent to each other.
Not regarding using or support for Lemmy: context, see the list of support communities and tools for finding communities below
Not ad nauseam inducing: please make sure it is a question that would be new to most members
An actual topic of discussion

Looking for support?

Looking for a community?

Lemmyverse: community search
sub.rehab: maps old subreddits to fediverse options, marks official as such
[email protected]: a community for finding communities

~Icon~ ~by~ ~@Double_[email protected]~

founded 5 years ago

MODERATORS

[email protected]

110

Is there any scientific basis on "taste creep?" Example: you've eaten lots of good food and now average food that you used to enjoy grosses you out. (self.asklemmy)

submitted 1 month ago by nairui to c/[email protected]

39 comments fedilink hide all child comments

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 month ago

Pretty sure its totaly wrong. There is no connection.

Chinese food, sushi or Indian Wok, all do not have thr smell, compared to me making a specific rice at home at is entirely unrelated.

Another Person commented with a prpbability of the Mailard Reaction, which sounds like it makes the most sense, but I didn't broke up yhe topic scientifically to say "yeah, that is exactly it"