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Why isn't it "multiple scleroses"? (self.nostupidquestions)

submitted 3 months ago by slaughtermouse to c/[email protected]

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[–] [email protected] 9 points 3 months ago

Because that "multiple" doesn't refer to multiple hardening (σκλήρωσῐς/sklḗrōsis) events, but rather to hardening as something uncountable happening in multiple spots.

It's roughly "multiple hardening", note how the lack of a plural doesn't feel off in this one either.

For reference, in languages showing adjective-noun agreement, the adjective gets the singular (e.g. Portuguese "esclerose múltipla" - the plural would be "escleroses múltiplas").