this post was submitted on 28 Jul 2024
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[โ€“] UnderpantsWeevil 0 points 4 months ago (1 children)

How is that an counterargument?

The Epicurian rebuttal to the Bronze Age understanding of omniscience can be resolved by asserting "God is less omniscient than we thought". That's it. And there are plenty of readings of Old Testament that imply the Abrahamic God isn't perfectly omniscient. Hell, the Garden of Eden myth asserts God isn't perfectly omniscient.

The Epicurean paradox does nothing else than to discuss if the premises as phrased can be true.

It asserts a paradox of infinities, rather than a non-existence of God.

[โ€“] [email protected] 0 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago)

It asserts a paradox of infinities, rather than a non-existence of God.

It never attempted to prove non-existence. This is what you misunderstood from the beginning.