this post was submitted on 18 May 2024
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Obviously it was a good thing that it was banned, but I'm just wondering if it would technically be considered authoritarian.

As in, is any law that restricts people's freedom to do something (yes, even if it's done to also free other people from oppression as in that case, since it technically restricts the slave owner's freedom to own slaves), considered authoritarian, even if at the time that the law is passed, it's only a small section of people that are still wanting to do those things and forcibly having their legal ability to do them revoked?

Or would it only be considered authoritarian if a large part of society had their ability to do a particular thing taken away from them forcibly?

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[โ€“] [email protected] 11 points 4 months ago (12 children)

all I hear is you think humans have a right to own slaves

[โ€“] [email protected] 1 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago) (10 children)

That's a weird assumption when I said it was good that it was abolished. Humans shouldn't have the right to own slaves is my belief. (But they did have that right at the time legally speaking). Or another way to put it, is that I don't think humans have the moral right to own slaves, even if they did have the legal right. This was a response to someone else telling me that banning slavery was an authoritarian decision. I just wanted to get clarification and try to understand it better.

[โ€“] [email protected] 12 points 4 months ago (5 children)

when you say banning slavery took away people's rights, that means you Believe owning humans is a right.

[โ€“] [email protected] 4 points 4 months ago

Legal rights vs moral rights, that's the confusion.

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